Following the previous post, I thought I'd do the same for the Japanese results.
Using the FRED data sets for CPI less food, energy for Japan normalized to 1 instead of 100, M1 for Japan and the nominal GDP for Japan): $C_0 = 2.01 \text{ G}\yen$, $Q^d_{ref} / Q^s_{ref} = 0.99$, and $Q^s_{ref} = 350401 \text{ G}\yen$.
While $Q^s_{ref, \text{ Japan}} \sim 5 Q^s_{ref, \text{ US}} $ in terms of current exchange rates, $C_{0, \text{ Japan}} \sim 0.02 C_{0, \text{ US}}$. The latter seems somewhat unnatural (in my eyes) for a fit parameter. I don't know if there is a reason.
Anyway, here are the graphs with these fit parameters (again, the conclusions remain unchanged):
From the last graph, it appears that that the US entered in 2009 the situation Japan entered around the year 2000 (crossing over the ridge line).
I did manage to find monetary base data for Japan; the results are here:
ReplyDeletehttp://informationtransfereconomics.blogspot.com/2013/07/all-your-m1.html